Christian argument sent to our website:
God is eternal, Torah is not. Torah is created, not eternal. There is an attempt in the Law keeping community to attach godly attributes to Torah, when in reality Torah is representative of God's character and expectations, not an embodiment of them. You may hear the Law 'keeper' say things like,
"Torah was before time", "God spoke creation into being, and what did He use to do that? His Word! What is His Word? Torah! What does John 1:1 say? The Word was with God in the beginning . . . therefore Torah is eternal!"
They will also take that train of thought (right off a cliff!) and say that the Word in John 1:1 is Torah and turn that into "Yeshua is the Living Torah", totally misusing the Greek word logos John uses for the word, Word. I used to think this was more of a fringe belief in the Hebrew Roots/Messianic Judaism and Law 'keeping' sects, but the belief that Yeshua is the Living Torah is a fairly widespread belief. They are undoubtedly preaching a different Jesus.
2 Corinthians 11:4-6 4 For if someone comes to you and preaches a Jesus other than the Jesus we preached, or if you receive a different spirit from the Spirit you received, or a different gospel from the one you accepted, you put up with it easily enough. 5 I do not think I am in the least inferior to those "super-apostles." 6 I may indeed be untrained as a speaker, but I do have knowledge. We have made this perfectly clear to you in every way.
Response from The Refiner's Fire:
This comment is actually blasphemous: "God is eternal, Torah is not. Torah is created, not eternal." Wow! I t is absolutely amazing how one could possibly miss that Torah consists of YHWH's Divine Instructions to mankind. His Divine Instructions are NOT eternal? Rather than to spell out everything that's wrong with that comment, please read this simple explanation about what Torah is and is not: https://therefinersfire.org/simple_torah.htm
Christians seem to always insist on using the Greek to explain away the Aramaic/Hebrew that Y'shua and all the Apostles spoke. It's the rare person who stops to ask himself: Why would Aramaic and Hebrew speaking Apostles have written the Gospels and the entire "New Testament" in a foreign language?
To build your whole dogma around the Greek word "logos" is to deny the deep meaning of the word, "Word" in John 1:1. In reality, the original word in John 1:1 which was "Miltha" was Aramaic, and actually cannot be translated!
A footnote in the AENT explains: "The Aramaic "Miltha" has no direct English equivalent. It can mean "Word", "Manifestation", "Instance" or "Substance" among other things."
So important is the word 'Miltha', that the AENT left it untranslated so as not to change or negate its significance....