I was just reading your article regarding Bible versions, and have some questions about your paragraph regarding the woman supposedly caught in adultery, where you say "The woman was, in fact, guilty as charged but according to these scriptures her sin was dismissed without consequence."
How do we know she was actually guilty as charged? My understanding is that she may not have actually committed adultery but may have simply been in the wrong place at the wrong time and being that in the culture of that time women were pretty much considered as "property" and just did what they were told to do (especially by Pharisaical leaders), she was simply taken by them (perhaps not even knowing she was to be accused of anything, until they charged her in front of Him) to "test" Yeshua to see if they could charge Him with anything. Who knows...they could have simply told her "You, come with us!" and she obeyed as women did in that culture.
There was a specific protocol for bringing such charges (you mentioned both parties must be brought) and Yeshua was NOT the one to whom they should have brought her. The parties were to be brought before the judge or High Priest (which was not Yeshua), and evidence given by two or more actual witnesses who - if they bore false witness - would themselves receive the punishment due the accused. Knowing their guilt in bearing false witness and in breaking Torah, they all fled, so there were no accusers. No accusers = no charges.
The leaders of the time were the guilty ones...acting with total hypocrisy, which Yeshua repeatedly railed against them for doing. Scripture tells us ALL have sinned, and though we attempt with full integrity to walk out our deliverance with fear and trembling...we still fall short and need to teshuva and hear hear said again "Go and sin no more!" Whether or not the story was added later, if studied in context with Torah and with regard to how precisely Torah dictated such matters were to be handled, it can be a good learning opportunity for us today.
You asked "How do we know she was actually guilty as charged?"
Two references: 1st, verse 3 says she was "caught in adultery", this suggests she was indeed "caught" in the act; and 2nd, verse 11 says that Yeshua concluded she had sinned because he said "go and sin no more." But Yeshua knew full well that to be judged required two witnesses yet no husband was present and no witnesses were present yet Yeshua supposedly said "go and sin no more" instead of "Go, for you have committed no sin."
You wrote "My understanding is that she may not have actually committed adultery but may have simply been in the wrong place at the wrong time...". I note you provided no scripture to support this understanding.
You wrote "The parties were to be brought before the judge or High Priest (which was not Yeshua)...".
Yes, we agree in that. But the verses begin with 8:1-2 which indicate that Yeshua was in the Temple court teaching at that time. How convenient it was since he was a known "aggravator" and the P'rushim did not like him so it is likely they would stop at the Temple court to ask him his opinion since it was known who he claimed to be. Verse 6 even says "They said this to trap him" so they would have grounds to bring charges against him. This reveals the dilemma that proves the story is false.
The story implies the woman was guilty, but Yeshua, in agreement, let her go without consequences. But we know that the Torah obedient Yeshua would NOT have recommended letting her go if the story was factual. He would have followed Torah. If she had committed adultery, she would have deserved punishment. If she was not guilty then Yeshua would have simply acknowledged that. But he would NOT have said "go and sin no more"! Inadvertent sin is one thing, intentional sin is quite another.
You conclude "Whether or not the story was added later, if studied in context with Torah and with regard to how precisely Torah dictated such matters were to be handled, it can be a good learning opportunity for us today."
Ouch! So we are to believe a story which violates Torah, should be learning opportunity? What, then, do we make of Deuteronomy 4:2 & 12:32?