I have a question on Revelation 11:2 about why the court of the gentiles is not to be measured. My thinking is we are one in Messiah, so, why is there a need to have a court of the gentiles?
This was a really great question!
While we are "one in Messiah," that phrase refers only to those Gentiles (and Jews, actually) who have taken Yeshua as their Messiah (redeemer).
Revelation 11:1-2 parallels the visions of other prophets, Daniel, Ezekiel, and Zechariah. John eats the scroll (John 10) similar to Ezekiel 1-3. Then John is to measure the Temple and the altar, similar to Zechariah 2, and count the people worshiping there.
This is a reference to the holy place and those within who are of YHWH. (This would be both Jews and Gentiles who were of YHWH and who were "clean" and worthy of being in the presence of YHWH.) But outside (verse 2), John is not to measure any area for it has "been given to the Goyim", i.e., the pagans, the unbelievers and those who are not worthy of being in the presence of YHWH.
We are even told the outer court would be given over to the pagans for 42 months. That matches the 3 1/2 years seen by Daniel 7:25 and 12:7 (a time, times, and half a time) when the pagans were to be allowed to overrun Jerusalem.
So, we must understand the meaning of the "court of the gentiles" to mean the "existence" of man OUTSIDE the presence of YHWH; that is, outside the courtyard of the Temple. They are left to their godlessness, while those inside are preserved, for example, Zechariah 2, specifically 2:5: "says Adonai, 'I will be for her a wall of fire surrounding her; and I will be the glory within her.'"
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